Placement Aptitude Mock Test 5 - 2026 (Timed Full Set with Solutions)
What changed in 2026 drives
Mass-recruiter offer letters are flatter for 2026 batch - the 4-5 LPA ASE band has barely budged in three years while inflation eats real wages. Premium tracks (Digital, Pro, Elite, Specialist) are still where the differential lives, and they are entirely test-driven. If you are aiming higher than the default offer, the coding round is not optional pageantry - it is the entire interview.
What I'd actually study for this
- 01Two solid coding-round answers (1 medium-hard DSA each, with edge-case discussion) > five half-baked ones
- 02One real project you can defend end-to-end - file paths, design decisions, and what you would change
- 03One DBMS schema you actually built (not a textbook ER diagram), with at least 3 join-heavy queries written from memory
- 04Three behavioural STAR stories: failure recovered, conflict handled, ownership taken
Where most candidates trip up
The single biggest mistake is treating company-specific guides as primary prep and DSA as secondary. It is the opposite. Mass recruiters use the test as a filter, but premium tracks at every IT services company use coding to allocate offer band. Spend 70% of prep time on DSA + system fundamentals, 20% on company-specific patterns, 10% on HR rehearsal. Reverse that ratio and you collect the default offer.
Editorial commentary by Aditya Sharma · written for PapersAdda · not generated, not aggregated.
Last Updated: June 2026
Mock Test 5 continues the timed series with a fresh set of 40 questions across quantitative aptitude, logical reasoning, and verbal ability. The topic weighting reflects what candidates report from recent TCS NQT, Infosys, and Wipro aptitude rounds. Sit it under a clock, then study the solutions.
Test Instructions
| Parameter | Details |
|---|---|
| Total Questions | 40 |
| Total Time | 45 minutes |
| Sections | 3 (Quantitative, Logical, Verbal) |
| Marking | +1 correct, -0.25 wrong |
| Target Score | 30+ for placement readiness |
Section Breakdown
| Section | Questions | Time Target |
|---|---|---|
| Quantitative Aptitude | 15 | 18 minutes |
| Logical Reasoning | 15 | 16 minutes |
| Verbal Ability | 10 | 11 minutes |
Difficulty Distribution
| Tier | Questions | Strategy |
|---|---|---|
| Easy | 15 | Quick wins, under 45 seconds |
| Medium | 19 | The scoring tier |
| Hard | 6 | Attempt only with time to spare |
Section 1: Quantitative Aptitude (15 Questions)
Q1. What is the smallest number that when divided by 12, 15, and 20 leaves a remainder of 5 in each case?
A) 60 B) 65 C) 125 D) 305
Q2. The average of first 10 natural numbers is:
A) 5 B) 5.5 C) 6 D) 6.5
Q3. A invests ₹8000 and B invests ₹12000 in a business. If the total profit is ₹5000, find B's share.
A) ₹2000 B) ₹2500 C) ₹3000 D) ₹3500
Q4. A number is increased by 25% and then decreased by 20%. What is the net change?
A) No change B) 5% increase C) 5% decrease D) 10% increase
Q5. The product of two numbers is 1320 and their HCF is 6. Find their LCM.
A) 200 B) 210 C) 220 D) 240
Q6. A train travels at 60 km/hr and crosses a 240 m bridge in 24 seconds. Find the length of the train.
A) 120 m B) 140 m C) 160 m D) 180 m
Q7. If 8 men or 12 women can do a work in 25 days, in how many days can 6 men and 11 women do it?
A) 12 days B) 14 days C) 15 days D) 16 days
Q8. A sum amounts to ₹4840 in 2 years and ₹5324 in 3 years at compound interest. Find the rate.
A) 8% B) 10% C) 11% D) 12%
Q9. The ratio of ages of A and B is 5:7. After 6 years the ratio will be 3:4. Find A's present age.
A) 24 B) 28 C) 30 D) 35
Q10. A shopkeeper professes to sell at cost price but uses a 900 gram weight for 1 kg. Find his gain percentage.
A) 10% B) 11.11% C) 12.5% D) 15%
Q11. The length and breadth of a rectangle are in ratio 4:3 and its perimeter is 56 cm. Find its area.
A) 168 cm² B) 180 cm² C) 192 cm² D) 200 cm²
Q12. Two numbers are in ratio 4:5. If 8 is added to each, the ratio becomes 5:6. Find the smaller number.
A) 24 B) 28 C) 32 D) 36
Q13. A can complete a work in 16 days and B in 24 days. They work together for 4 days, then A leaves. In how many more days will B finish?
A) 10 B) 12 C) 14 D) 16
Q14. The simple interest on a sum for 4 years at 5% per annum is ₹800 less than the simple interest on the same sum for 6 years at the same rate. Find the sum.
A) ₹6000 B) ₹7000 C) ₹8000 D) ₹9000
Q15. A bag contains 4 red and 6 blue balls. Two balls are drawn at random. What is the probability that both are red?
A) 1/15 B) 2/15 C) 1/5 D) 4/15
Section 2: Logical Reasoning (15 Questions)
Q16. Find the next term: 5, 11, 23, 47, ?
A) 71 B) 83 C) 95 D) 99
Q17. In a code where each letter equals its position in the alphabet (A=1, B=2, and so on) and a word's code is the sum of its letters, SUN is 54 and MOON is 57. What is the code for STAR?
A) 58 B) 60 C) 62 D) 64
Q18. Pointing to a girl, Rahul said, "She is the daughter of my mother's only daughter." How is the girl related to Rahul?
A) Daughter B) Niece C) Sister D) Cousin
Q19. A is taller than B but shorter than C. D is taller than A but shorter than C. Who is the tallest?
A) A B) B C) C D) D
Q20. Find the odd one out: 121, 144, 169, 196, 225, 250
A) 144 B) 196 C) 225 D) 250
Q21. Complete the analogy: Pen : Write :: Knife : ?
A) Sharp B) Cut C) Kitchen D) Metal
Q22. If TODAY is coded as UPEBZ, then how is NIGHT coded?
A) OJHIU B) OJHIV C) OHJIU D) MJHIU
Q23. A man walks 10 m south, turns left and walks 10 m, turns left again and walks 10 m. In which direction is he facing now?
A) North B) South C) East D) West
Q24. Find the missing number: 4, 9, 19, 39, 79, ?
A) 139 B) 149 C) 159 D) 169
Q25. Statement: All cups are plates. Some plates are spoons.
Conclusions: I. Some cups are spoons. II. Some plates are cups.
A) Only I follows B) Only II follows C) Both follow D) Neither follows
Q26. If 1st January 2024 was a Monday, what day was 1st January 2025? (2024 is a leap year.)
A) Tuesday B) Wednesday C) Thursday D) Friday
Q27. Five friends sit in a row. C is to the left of D but to the right of A. B is to the right of D. E is between D and B. Who is at the extreme right?
A) A B) B C) C D) E
Q28. Complete the series: Z, X, V, T, ?
A) R B) S C) Q D) P
Q29. If + means ÷, ÷ means -, - means ×, × means +, then 16 + 4 ÷ 2 - 3 × 5 = ?
A) 3 B) 4 C) 5 D) 6
Q30. Arrange in logical order: 1. Word 2. Paragraph 3. Letter 4. Sentence 5. Phrase
A) 3,1,5,4,2 B) 3,1,4,5,2 C) 1,3,5,4,2 D) 3,5,1,4,2
Section 3: Verbal Ability (10 Questions)
Q31. Synonym of ABATE:
A) Increase B) Reduce C) Continue D) Strengthen
Q32. Antonym of HUMBLE:
A) Modest B) Arrogant C) Simple D) Meek
Q33. Fill in the blank: He apologized ___ his mistake.
A) on B) about C) for D) of
Q34. Correctly spelled word:
A) Maintainance B) Maintenance C) Maintenence D) Maintainence
Q35. One word substitution: One who cannot read or write.
A) Illiterate B) Ignorant C) Uneducated D) Naive
Q36. Error spotting: The jury (A) / have given (B) / its verdict (C) / No error (D)
A) A B) B C) C D) D
Q37. Idiom: "To bite the bullet" means:
A) To eat fast B) To face a difficult situation bravely C) To get injured D) To stay silent
Q38. Fill in the blank: I am looking forward ___ meeting you.
A) to B) for C) at D) on
Q39. Synonym of CONCISE:
A) Lengthy B) Brief C) Detailed D) Vague
Q40. Rearrange: (P) a healthy life (Q) exercise (R) is essential (S) for
A) QRSP B) QRPS C) QPRS D) QSRP
Answer Key
Quantitative Aptitude (Q1-Q15)
| Q | Ans | Q | Ans | Q | Ans |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| 1 | B | 6 | C | 11 | C |
| 2 | B | 7 | C | 12 | C |
| 3 | C | 8 | B | 13 | C |
| 4 | A | 9 | C | 14 | C |
| 5 | C | 10 | B | 15 | B |
Logical Reasoning (Q16-Q30)
| Q | Ans | Q | Ans | Q | Ans |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| 16 | C | 21 | B | 26 | B |
| 17 | A | 22 | A | 27 | B |
| 18 | B | 23 | A | 28 | A |
| 19 | C | 24 | C | 29 | A |
| 20 | D | 25 | B | 30 | D |
Verbal Ability (Q31-Q40)
| Q | Ans | Q | Ans |
|---|---|---|---|
| 31 | B | 36 | B |
| 32 | B | 37 | B |
| 33 | C | 38 | A |
| 34 | B | 39 | B |
| 35 | A | 40 | A |
Worked Solutions
Quantitative Aptitude
Q1. LCM of 12, 15, 20 = 60. A number leaving remainder 5 has the form 60k + 5. The smallest is 60 + 5 = 65. Check: 65/12 = 5 rem 5, 65/15 = 4 rem 5, 65/20 = 3 rem 5. Answer: B.
Q2. Average of first 10 natural numbers = (10 + 1)/2 = 5.5. Answer: B.
Q3. Profit splits in ratio of investment 8000:12000 = 2:3. B's share = 3/5 × 5000 = 3000. Answer: C.
Q4. Net factor = 1.25 × 0.80 = 1.00, so no change. Answer: A.
Q5. Product = HCF × LCM. LCM = 1320/6 = 220. Answer: C.
Q6. Speed = 60 km/hr = 50/3 m/s. Distance covered = (50/3) × 24 = 400 m. Length of train = 400 - 240 = 160 m. Answer: C.
Q7. 8 men = 12 women, so 1 man = 1.5 women. 6 men = 9 women. Total = 9 + 11 = 20 women. 12 women take 25 days, so 20 women take 12 × 25 / 20 = 15 days. Answer: C.
Q8. Interest for the 3rd year = 5324 - 4840 = 484 on 4840. Rate = 484/4840 × 100 = 10%. Answer: B.
Q9. 5x + 6 over 7x + 6 = 3/4. Cross multiply: 4(5x + 6) = 3(7x + 6), 20x + 24 = 21x + 18, x = 6. A's age = 5x = 30. Answer: C.
Q10. Gain% = (1000 - 900)/900 × 100 = 100/900 × 100 = 11.11%. Answer: B.
Q11. Perimeter 56, so length + breadth = 28. Ratio 4:3, so length = 16, breadth = 12. Area = 192. Answer: C.
Q12. 4x + 8 over 5x + 8 = 5/6. 6(4x + 8) = 5(5x + 8), 24x + 48 = 25x + 40, x = 8. Smaller = 4x = 32. Answer: C.
Q13. Combined rate = 1/16 + 1/24 = 3/48 + 2/48 = 5/48. In 4 days they do 20/48 = 5/12. Remaining = 7/12. B's rate = 1/24, so time = (7/12) ÷ (1/24) = 14 days. Answer: C.
Q14. SI for 6 years minus SI for 4 years = SI for 2 years = 800. SI for 2 years at 5% = P × 5 × 2/100 = 0.1P = 800, so P = 8000. Answer: C.
Q15. P(both red) = (4/10) × (3/9) = 12/90 = 2/15. Answer: B.
Logical Reasoning
Q16. Each term = previous × 2 + 1: 5, 11, 23, 47, 95. Answer: C.
Q17. Use the A1Z26 letter-sum. SUN = 19 + 21 + 14 = 54. MOON = 13 + 15 + 15 + 14 = 57. STAR = 19 + 20 + 1 + 18 = 58. Answer: A.
Q18. Rahul is male, so his mother's only daughter is Rahul's sister. The girl is that sister's daughter, which makes her Rahul's niece. Answer: B.
Q19. A < C, B < A, D < C, A < D. So C is taller than A, D, and B. C is tallest. Answer: C.
Q20. 121, 144, 169, 196, 225 are perfect squares (11² to 15²); 250 is not. Answer: D.
Q21. A pen is used to write as a knife is used to cut. Answer: B.
Q22. Shift each letter +1: N to O, I to J, G to H, H to I, T to U. NIGHT to OJHIU. Answer: A.
Q23. Start facing south. First left turn makes him face east. Second left turn makes him face north. So he is finally facing north. Answer: A.
Q24. Each term = previous × 2 + 1: 4, 9, 19, 39, 79, 159. Answer: C.
Q25. All cups are plates, so some plates are cups (II follows). "Some plates are spoons" does not connect cups to spoons, so I does not follow. Answer: B.
Q26. 2024 is a leap year (366 days). 366 mod 7 = 2. Monday + 2 = Wednesday. Answer: B.
Q27. Order from left: A, C, D, E, B. B is at the extreme right. Answer: B.
Q28. Letters go back by 2: Z, X, V, T, R. Answer: A.
Q29. Substitute: 16 ÷ 4 - 2 × 3 + 5. BODMAS: 16÷4 = 4, 2×3 = 6, then 4 - 6 + 5 = 3. Answer: A.
Q30. Letter, word, phrase, sentence, paragraph: 3, 1, 5, 4, 2. Answer: D.
Verbal Ability
Q31. ABATE means to reduce or lessen. Answer: B.
Q32. HUMBLE opposite is arrogant. Answer: B.
Q33. "Apologize for" something. Answer: C.
Q34. Correct spelling: Maintenance. Answer: B.
Q35. One who cannot read or write is illiterate. Answer: A.
Q36. "The jury" as a single body takes a singular verb, so it should be "has given". Error at B. Answer: B.
Q37. "To bite the bullet" means to face a difficult situation bravely. Answer: B.
Q38. "Look forward to" takes "to". Answer: A.
Q39. CONCISE means brief and to the point. Answer: B.
Q40. Correct order: Exercise is essential for a healthy life. Answer: A.
Score Interpretation
| Score | Performance | Recommendation |
|---|---|---|
| 34-40 | Excellent | Ready for top-tier company tests |
| 28-33 | Good | Sharpen the medium tier |
| 20-27 | Average | Drill your weakest section |
| Below 20 | Needs Work | Rebuild fundamentals first |
Common Traps In This Mock
Several questions here are written to catch the over-confident solver. The remainder question rewards checking the smallest valid number rather than the first plausible one. The kinship and direction questions reward drawing a quick diagram instead of solving in your head. Candidates report that the single most reliable accuracy habit is a five-second sanity check after each answer: does the magnitude make sense, and did you answer what was actually asked.
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Frequently Asked Questions
What topics does Mock Test 5 emphasize?
Mock Test 5 weights number systems, averages, and partnership in quantitative, plus coding-decoding and seating arrangement in reasoning. These are the categories candidates report appearing most frequently in TCS NQT and Wipro NLTH aptitude rounds, so the practice transfers directly.
Can I use this mock without a timer?
You can, but you lose most of the benefit. The hardest part of a real placement aptitude test is time pressure, not difficulty. Always run a 45-minute clock and stop when it ends, then mark how many you left unattempted. That unattempted count is your speed gap.
How do I improve speed on quantitative questions?
Memorize the high-frequency shortcuts: fraction-to-percentage conversions, multiplication tricks for 11 and 25, and the standard ratio splits. Candidates report that recognizing a question type within five seconds, before solving, is what frees up the time needed to finish a section.
Methodology applied to this articlelast verified 8 Jun 2026
- No fabricated salary numbers or success rates. If we quote a range, it's sourced.
- No noun-substituted templates. This article was not generated by swapping company names in a stock prompt.
- No paid placements, sponsored coaching links, or affiliate-shilled course pushes.
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