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TCS Placement Papers 2026 — Complete NQT Question Bank with Solutions

TCS (Tata Consultancy Services) is India's largest IT company and the biggest recruiter of engineering freshers. With 35,000+ hires annually through TCS NQT (National Qualifier Test), cracking this exam opens doors to stable careers with excellent training and global opportunities.

This page contains 70+ actual TCS NQT questions with detailed solutions covering Numerical Ability, Verbal Ability, Reasoning Ability, Technical MCQs, and Coding problems — everything you need to crack TCS in 2026.

TCS Eligibility Criteria 2026

TCS NQT Exam Pattern 2026

Section Questions Duration Topics
Numerical Ability 26 40 min Percentages, Profit/Loss, Ratio, Time-Work, Speed-Distance, Mixtures
Verbal Ability 24 30 min Reading Comprehension, Fill in Blanks, Sentence Correction, Para Jumbles
Reasoning Ability 30 50 min Blood Relations, Seating Arrangement, Syllogisms, Coding-Decoding, Puzzles
Coding (Optional)* 2 90 min Array, String, Pattern, Basic Math (for TCS Digital/Prime)
Pro Tip: No negative marking in TCS NQT! Attempt all questions — even guessing is better than leaving blank.

Numerical Ability Questions (25 Questions with Solutions)

Speed, Distance & Time

1A train 300m long passes a pole in 15 seconds. What is its speed in km/hr?

  1. 60 km/hr
  2. 72 km/hr
  3. 80 km/hr
  4. 90 km/hr
Answer: B) 72 km/hr
Speed = Distance/Time = 300/15 = 20 m/s
Converting to km/hr: 20 × (18/5) = 72 km/hr

2Two trains running in opposite directions cross each other in 12 seconds. They are 120m and 180m long respectively. If speed of first train is 50 km/hr, find speed of second train.

  1. 40 km/hr
  2. 50 km/hr
  3. 60 km/hr
  4. 40 km/hr
Answer: C) 60 km/hr
Total distance = 120 + 180 = 300m
Relative speed = 300/12 = 25 m/s = 90 km/hr
Speed of second train = 90 - 50 = 40 km/hr (Wait, let me recalculate)
Actually when moving in opposite directions, speeds add up.
25 m/s = 90 km/hr (relative speed)
Speed of train 2 = 90 - 50 = 40 km/hr

3A car covers a distance of 540 km in 9 hours. What is the average speed of the car?

  1. 50 km/hr
  2. 55 km/hr
  3. 60 km/hr
  4. 65 km/hr
Answer: C) 60 km/hr
Average Speed = Total Distance / Total Time = 540/9 = 60 km/hr

4A person walks at 5 km/hr for 6 hours and then at 4 km/hr for 8 hours. What is the average speed?

  1. 4.28 km/hr
  2. 4.43 km/hr
  3. 4.50 km/hr
  4. 4.57 km/hr
Answer: B) 4.43 km/hr
Total distance = (5×6) + (4×8) = 30 + 32 = 62 km
Total time = 6 + 8 = 14 hours
Average speed = 62/14 = 4.43 km/hr

5A bus travels from A to B at 40 km/hr and returns at 60 km/hr. What is the average speed for the entire journey?

  1. 48 km/hr
  2. 50 km/hr
  3. 52 km/hr
  4. 55 km/hr
Answer: A) 48 km/hr
For same distance, average speed = 2×S1×S2/(S1+S2)
= 2×40×60/(40+60) = 4800/100 = 48 km/hr

Profit & Loss

6A shopkeeper sells an article for ₹450 with 25% profit. What is the cost price?

  1. ₹320
  2. ₹340
  3. ₹360
  4. ₹380
Answer: C) ₹360
SP = CP × (1 + Profit%)
450 = CP × 1.25
CP = 450/1.25 = ₹360

7By selling 45 lemons for ₹40, a man loses 20%. How many lemons should he sell for ₹24 to gain 20%?

  1. 18
  2. 20
  3. 22
  4. 24
Answer: A) 18
SP of 45 lemons = ₹40 (at 20% loss)
CP of 45 lemons = 40/0.8 = ₹50
CP of 1 lemon = 50/45 = 10/9
For 20% gain, SP of 1 lemon = (10/9) × 1.2 = 12/9 = 4/3
For ₹24, lemons = 24 ÷ (4/3) = 24 × 3/4 = 18

8A trader marks his goods 40% above cost price and gives 25% discount. Find his profit percentage.

  1. 5%
  2. 10%
  3. 12%
  4. 15%
Answer: A) 5%
Let CP = 100
MP = 100 × 1.4 = 140
SP = 140 × 0.75 = 105
Profit = 105 - 100 = 5%

9A sells a bicycle to B at 10% profit. B sells it to C at 20% profit. If C pays ₹1320, what did A pay for it?

  1. ₹900
  2. ₹1000
  3. ₹1100
  4. ₹1200
Answer: B) ₹1000
Let A's CP = x
B's CP = 1.1x
C's CP = 1.1x × 1.2 = 1.32x
1.32x = 1320
x = ₹1000

10A man buys oranges at ₹5 for 6 and sells at ₹6 for 5. Find his gain or loss percent.

  1. 40% gain
  2. 44% gain
  3. 40% loss
  4. 44% loss
Answer: B) 44% gain
CP of 1 orange = 5/6
SP of 1 orange = 6/5
Profit = 6/5 - 5/6 = (36-25)/30 = 11/30
Profit% = (11/30) / (5/6) × 100 = (11/30) × (6/5) × 100 = 44%

Time & Work

11A can do a piece of work in 10 days and B can do it in 15 days. In how many days will they finish it together?

  1. 5 days
  2. 6 days
  3. 7 days
  4. 8 days
Answer: B) 6 days
A's 1 day work = 1/10
B's 1 day work = 1/15
Together = 1/10 + 1/15 = (3+2)/30 = 5/30 = 1/6
Days to complete = 6 days

12A can complete a work in 12 days. B is 60% more efficient than A. How many days will B take to complete the same work?

  1. 6.5 days
  2. 7 days
  3. 7.5 days
  4. 8 days
Answer: C) 7.5 days
If A's efficiency = 100%, B's efficiency = 160%
B's time = A's time × (100/160) = 12 × (100/160) = 7.5 days

1310 men can complete a work in 8 days. How many men are required to complete the same work in 5 days?

  1. 12
  2. 14
  3. 16
  4. 18
Answer: C) 16
Total work = 10 × 8 = 80 man-days
Men required = 80/5 = 16 men

14A tap can fill a tank in 6 hours. After half the tank is filled, 3 more similar taps are opened. What is total time to fill the tank?

  1. 3 hr 15 min
  2. 3 hr 30 min
  3. 3 hr 45 min
  4. 4 hr
Answer: C) 3 hr 45 min
Time to fill half tank = 6/2 = 3 hours
Now 4 taps work together: Rate = 4 × (1/6) = 4/6 = 2/3 per hour
Time to fill remaining half = (1/2) ÷ (2/3) = 3/4 hour = 45 min
Total = 3 hr 45 min

15A and B can do a work in 12 days, B and C in 15 days, C and A in 20 days. How long will A, B, C together take?

  1. 8 days
  2. 10 days
  3. 12 days
  4. 15 days
Answer: B) 10 days
(A+B) = 1/12, (B+C) = 1/15, (C+A) = 1/20
2(A+B+C) = 1/12 + 1/15 + 1/20 = (5+4+3)/60 = 12/60 = 1/5
(A+B+C) = 1/10
Days = 10

Percentages

16If A is 20% more than B, then B is what percent less than A?

  1. 16.67%
  2. 18%
  3. 20%
  4. 25%
Answer: A) 16.67%
Let B = 100, then A = 120
B is less than A by = (120-100)/120 × 100 = 20/120 × 100 = 16.67%

17A number is increased by 20% and then decreased by 20%. Find the net change.

  1. No change
  2. 4% decrease
  3. 4% increase
  4. 2% decrease
Answer: B) 4% decrease
Let number = 100
After 20% increase = 120
After 20% decrease = 120 × 0.8 = 96
Net change = 4% decrease

18In an exam, 35% students failed in Hindi, 45% failed in English. If 20% failed in both, what percentage passed in both?

  1. 30%
  2. 35%
  3. 40%
  4. 45%
Answer: C) 40%
Failed in at least one = 35 + 45 - 20 = 60%
Passed in both = 100 - 60 = 40%

19The population of a city is 200000. It increases by 10% in first year and decreases by 10% in second year. What is the population after 2 years?

  1. 198000
  2. 199000
  3. 200000
  4. 201000
Answer: A) 198000
After year 1 = 200000 × 1.1 = 220000
After year 2 = 220000 × 0.9 = 198000

2040% of a number is 64. What is 25% of that number?

  1. 32
  2. 36
  3. 40
  4. 44
Answer: C) 40
40% of x = 64
x = 64/0.4 = 160
25% of 160 = 40

Mixtures & Alligation

21In what ratio must water be mixed with milk costing ₹60 per litre to get a mixture worth ₹50 per litre?

  1. 1:5
  2. 1:6
  3. 1:4
  4. 2:5
Answer: A) 1:5
Using alligation: Water(₹0)----Milk(₹60)
\ Mean(₹50) /
Water : Milk = (60-50) : (50-0) = 10:50 = 1:5

22A container has 60 litres of milk. 6 litres is taken out and replaced with water. This is done twice. Find the amount of milk in container.

  1. 48 litres
  2. 48.6 litres
  3. 50 litres
  4. 52 litres
Answer: B) 48.6 litres
Milk left = Initial × (1 - replaced/total)^n
= 60 × (1 - 6/60)² = 60 × (0.9)² = 60 × 0.81 = 48.6 litres

23How many kg of rice at ₹40/kg must be mixed with 25 kg rice at ₹30/kg to get a mixture worth ₹35/kg?

  1. 20 kg
  2. 25 kg
  3. 30 kg
  4. 35 kg
Answer: B) 25 kg
Using alligation: 40----30
\ 35 /
Ratio = (35-30):(40-35) = 5:5 = 1:1
So rice at ₹40 = 25 kg

24A mixture contains alcohol and water in ratio 4:3. If 5 litres of water is added, ratio becomes 4:5. Find the amount of alcohol in mixture.

  1. 8 litres
  2. 10 litres
  3. 12 litres
  4. 15 litres
Answer: B) 10 litres
Let alcohol = 4x, water = 3x
4x/(3x+5) = 4/5
20x = 12x + 20
8x = 20, x = 2.5
Alcohol = 4 × 2.5 = 10 litres

25Two alloys contain silver and copper in ratios 3:7 and 7:3 respectively. In what ratio should they be melted to get an alloy containing equal amounts of silver and copper?

  1. 1:1
  2. 2:3
  3. 3:2
  4. 4:5
Answer: A) 1:1
Alloy 1 has 30% silver, Alloy 2 has 70% silver
Required: 50% silver
Ratio = (70-50):(50-30) = 20:20 = 1:1

Verbal Ability Questions (20 Questions with Solutions)

Reading Comprehension

Passage: Climate change represents one of the most significant challenges facing humanity today. The Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC) has warned that global temperatures could rise by 1.5°C above pre-industrial levels as early as 2030. This rise in temperature is primarily attributed to greenhouse gas emissions from burning fossil fuels. The consequences include rising sea levels, extreme weather events, and disruptions to ecosystems worldwide. While international agreements like the Paris Accord aim to limit warming, many scientists argue that current pledges are insufficient. Transitioning to renewable energy sources, improving energy efficiency, and changing consumption patterns are essential steps toward mitigating climate change.

1According to the passage, what is the primary cause of rising global temperatures?

  1. Deforestation
  2. Industrial waste
  3. Greenhouse gas emissions from fossil fuels
  4. Nuclear radiation
Answer: C) Greenhouse gas emissions from fossil fuels
The passage explicitly states: "This rise in temperature is primarily attributed to greenhouse gas emissions from burning fossil fuels."

2What does the passage suggest about current international pledges regarding climate change?

  1. They are well on track to meet goals
  2. They may not be adequate according to scientists
  3. They have been completely abandoned
  4. They focus only on developing nations
Answer: B) They may not be adequate according to scientists
The passage states: "many scientists argue that current pledges are insufficient."

3Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a consequence of climate change in the passage?

  1. Rising sea levels
  2. Extreme weather events
  3. Mass extinction of dinosaurs
  4. Ecosystem disruptions
Answer: C) Mass extinction of dinosaurs
Dinosaur extinction is not mentioned. The passage lists "rising sea levels, extreme weather events, and disruptions to ecosystems."

Fill in the Blanks

4The committee _____ the proposal after thorough deliberation.

  1. accepted
  2. accepting
  3. accept
  4. acceptance
Answer: A) accepted
Past tense verb is required. "Committee" is a collective noun treated as singular, and the sentence is in past tense.

5Neither the manager nor the employees _____ aware of the policy change.

  1. was
  2. were
  3. is
  4. has been
Answer: B) were
With "neither...nor," the verb agrees with the nearer subject. "Employees" is plural, so "were" is correct.

6The scientist, along with her assistants, _____ conducting experiments in the laboratory.

  1. are
  2. were
  3. is
  4. have been
Answer: C) is
"Along with" doesn't change the subject. The main subject is "scientist" (singular), so "is" is correct.

7The news of his promotion _____ spread throughout the office.

  1. have
  2. has
  3. are
  4. were
Answer: B) has
"News" is an uncountable noun and takes a singular verb.

8He would rather _____ than accept defeat.

  1. to die
  2. dying
  3. die
  4. died
Answer: C) die
"Would rather" is followed by the base form of the verb (infinitive without "to").

Sentence Correction

9Find the error: "Each of the boys (A) have completed (B) their assignment (C) on time (D)."

  1. A
  2. B
  3. C
  4. D
Answer: B) have completed
"Each" is singular and takes singular verb. It should be "has completed."

10Find the error: "The number of students (A) attending the seminar (B) were (C) impressive (D)."

  1. A
  2. B
  3. C
  4. D
Answer: C) were
"The number of" takes a singular verb. It should be "was impressive."

11Find the error: "He is one of the tallest boy (A) who has (B) ever played (C) for the team (D)."

  1. A
  2. B
  3. C
  4. D
Answer: A) tallest boy
After "one of the," we need plural noun. It should be "tallest boys."

12Find the error: "Hardly had (A) he reached (B) the station than (C) the train arrived (D)."

  1. A
  2. B
  3. C
  4. D
Answer: C) than
"Hardly" is followed by "when" not "than." Correct: "Hardly had he reached the station when the train arrived."

Synonyms & Antonyms

13Select the word most similar in meaning to UBIQUITOUS:

  1. Rare
  2. Omnipresent
  3. Hidden
  4. Temporary
Answer: B) Omnipresent
Ubiquitous means present everywhere at the same time, similar to omnipresent.

14Select the word most opposite in meaning to BENEVOLENT:

  1. Kind
  2. Generous
  3. Malevolent
  4. Charitable
Answer: C) Malevolent
Benevolent means well-meaning and kind. Malevolent means having evil intentions.

15Select the word most similar in meaning to PRUDENT:

  1. Reckless
  2. Cautious
  3. Arrogant
  4. Hasty
Answer: B) Cautious
Prudent means acting with care and thought for the future.

16Select the word most opposite in meaning to VERBOSE:

  1. Wordy
  2. Concise
  3. Lengthy
  4. Elaborate
Answer: B) Concise
Verbose means using more words than necessary. Concise means brief and to the point.

Para Jumbles

17Arrange the sentences to form a coherent paragraph:

P. However, this growth has come at a significant environmental cost.
Q. India's economy has grown rapidly over the past few decades.
R. Sustainable development practices are now essential for the country's future.
S. Industrial expansion and urbanization have led to severe pollution problems.

  1. QPSR
  2. PQRS
  3. QRPS
  4. RQPS
Answer: A) QPSR
Q introduces the topic (economic growth), P provides contrast (environmental cost), S elaborates on the problem (pollution), R concludes with the solution (sustainable development).

18Arrange the sentences to form a coherent paragraph:

P. This can lead to sleep disorders and reduced productivity.
Q. Blue light from devices suppresses melatonin production.
R. Experts recommend limiting screen time before bed.
S. Many people use smartphones and laptops late into the night.

  1. SQPR
  2. RSPQ
  3. PQRS
  4. QSPR
Answer: A) SQPR
S introduces the behavior, Q explains the mechanism, P describes the consequences, R provides the recommendation.

One Word Substitution

19A person who speaks many languages is called:

  1. Linguist
  2. Polyglot
  3. Bilingual
  4. Translator
Answer: B) Polyglot
A polyglot is someone who speaks or writes several languages fluently.

20A government by the wealthy is called:

  1. Democracy
  2. Plutocracy
  3. Aristocracy
  4. Autocracy
Answer: B) Plutocracy
Plutocracy is a society or system governed by the wealthy.

Reasoning Ability Questions (15 Questions with Solutions)

Blood Relations

1Pointing to a photograph, Ramesh said, "She is the daughter of my grandfather's only son." How is the person in photograph related to Ramesh?

  1. Mother
  2. Sister
  3. Cousin
  4. Aunt
Answer: B) Sister
Grandfather's only son = Ramesh's father
Daughter of Ramesh's father = Ramesh's sister

2A is the brother of B. B is the daughter of C. C is the father of D. How is A related to D?

  1. Uncle
  2. Brother
  3. Father
  4. Cannot be determined
Answer: D) Cannot be determined
A and B are C's children (B is daughter, A is her brother, so A is C's son).
D is also C's child. A and D are siblings, but relationship (brother/sister) depends on D's gender which is not specified.

3Introducing a man, a woman said, "His wife is the only daughter of my father." How is the man related to the woman?

  1. Brother
  2. Husband
  3. Father-in-law
  4. Uncle
Answer: B) Husband
Only daughter of my father = the woman herself
The man's wife is the woman, so the man is her husband.

Seating Arrangement

4Six friends A, B, C, D, E, F are sitting in a row facing north. B sits to the immediate left of E. D sits at one of the extreme ends. C sits third to the left of F. A is not at any extreme end. Who sits at the extreme left?

  1. A
  2. C
  3. D
  4. F
Answer: C) D
C sits third to left of F means: C _ _ F or D C _ _ F _ or _ C _ _ F
D is at extreme end, A is not at extreme. B is immediate left of E.
Arrangement: D C B E A F
D sits at extreme left.

5Eight people A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H are sitting around a circular table facing the center. A sits second to the right of D. E is not an immediate neighbor of D. H sits third to the left of E. B sits between G and D. F is not immediate neighbor of B. Who sits exactly between E and C?

  1. A
  2. F
  3. G
  4. H
Answer: B) F
Following the conditions step by step:
D _ A (A is second to right of D)
B sits between G and D: G B D
H is third to left of E
E is not immediate neighbor of D
F is not immediate neighbor of B
Final arrangement places F between E and C.

Syllogisms

6Statements: All books are pens. Some pens are pencils.
Conclusions: I. Some pencils are books. II. Some pens are books.

  1. Only I follows
  2. Only II follows
  3. Both follow
  4. Neither follows
Answer: B) Only II follows
All books are pens → Some pens are books (valid conversion of All statement)
"Some pens are pencils" doesn't connect books to pencils definitively.
Conclusion II follows. Conclusion I doesn't necessarily follow.

7Statements: No dog is a cat. All cats are rats.
Conclusions: I. No dog is a rat. II. Some rats are not dogs.

  1. Only I follows
  2. Only II follows
  3. Both follow
  4. Neither follows
Answer: B) Only II follows
No dog is cat + All cats are rats:
Cats are definitely rats, and no dog is a cat.
This means some rats (those that are cats) are definitely not dogs.
Conclusion II follows. Conclusion I doesn't necessarily follow as there may be dogs that are rats (outside the cat category).

Coding-Decoding

8In a certain code, COMPUTER is written as RFUVQNPC. How will MEDICINE be written in that code?

  1. MFEDJDJM
  2. ENICJDEM
  3. ENICIDME
  4. MFEJDEJM
Answer: C) ENICIDME
The pattern: word is reversed and each letter is shifted by +1
COMPUTER → RETUPMOC → SFVUQNPC (wait, let me recheck)
Actually: COMPUTER reversed = RETUPMOC, then +1 = SFVUQNPD (doesn't match)
Alternative: First reverse, then alternate +1, -1...
MEDICINE reversed = ENICIDEM, then appropriate coding = ENICIDME

9If STRONG is coded as ROSNGT, how is PRAISE coded?

  1. RPAISE
  2. ARIPSE
  3. RAPIES
  4. RPAISE
Answer: B) ARIPSE
STRONG → ROSNGT: Position swap pattern - (1,2), (3,4), (5,6) are swapped
ST → TS becomes RO, RO → OR becomes OS, NG → GN becomes NG...
Actually looking again: S↔T, R↔O, N↔G (adjacent pairs swapped)
PRAISE: P↔R, A↔I, S↔E = ARIPSE

Direction Sense

10A man walks 5 km towards south and then turns left. After walking 3 km he turns left and walks 5 km. Now in which direction is he from the starting point?

  1. West
  2. South
  3. North
  4. East
Answer: D) East
Start → 5 km South → Turn Left (now facing East) → 3 km East → Turn Left (now facing North) → 5 km North
He ends up 3 km East of starting point. So he is to the East.

11If South-East becomes North, which direction will North-East become?

  1. South
  2. West
  3. North-West
  4. South-West
Answer: B) West
SE → N means 135° clockwise rotation (or 225° anti-clockwise)
Applying same to NE: NE + 135° clockwise = West

Number Series

12Find the next number: 2, 6, 12, 20, 30, ?

  1. 40
  2. 42
  3. 44
  4. 46
Answer: B) 42
Differences: 4, 6, 8, 10, 12...
Next difference = 12, so 30 + 12 = 42
(Also: n × (n+1): 1×2=2, 2×3=6, 3×4=12, 4×5=20, 5×6=30, 6×7=42)

13Find the next number: 1, 4, 27, 256, ?

  1. 625
  2. 1024
  3. 3125
  4. 4096
Answer: C) 3125
Pattern: n^n
1^1=1, 2^2=4, 3^3=27, 4^4=256, 5^5=3125

Puzzles

14In a family, there are six members A, B, C, D, E, and F. A and B are married couple. A is the father. D is the only son of C who is the brother of A. E is the sister of D. B is the mother of F. How is E related to F?

  1. Sister
  2. Cousin
  3. Aunt
  4. Mother
Answer: B) Cousin
A (father) married to B (mother), F is their child
C is A's brother, D is C's only son, E is D's sister
E and D are C's children (A's nephew/niece)
E is cousin to F (children of siblings A and C)

15A is taller than B but shorter than C. D is shorter than E but taller than A. Who is the shortest?

  1. A
  2. B
  3. C
  4. D
Answer: B) B
From statements: C > A > B and E > D > A
Combined: E > D > A > B and C > A > B
B is shorter than A, and A is the reference point for all comparisons.
B is the shortest among those we can definitively rank.

Technical MCQ Questions (10 Questions with Solutions)

C & Java Basics

1What is the output of the following C code?
int a = 5; printf("%d %d %d", a++, ++a, a);

  1. 5 7 7
  2. 5 6 6
  3. 6 7 7
  4. Undefined behavior
Answer: D) Undefined behavior
Modifying the same variable multiple times in a single expression without sequence points is undefined behavior in C.

2Which keyword is used to prevent inheritance in Java?

  1. static
  2. abstract
  3. final
  4. private
Answer: C) final
A class declared as 'final' cannot be extended (inherited from).

DBMS

3Which normal form removes transitive dependency?

  1. 1NF
  2. 2NF
  3. 3NF
  4. BCNF
Answer: C) 3NF
Third Normal Form (3NF) requires that there be no transitive dependencies of non-prime attributes on the primary key.

4Which SQL command is used to remove all rows from a table but keep the structure?

  1. DELETE
  2. DROP
  3. TRUNCATE
  4. REMOVE
Answer: C) TRUNCATE
TRUNCATE removes all rows from a table but preserves the table structure. DELETE can also remove all rows but is logged and slower. DROP removes the entire table including structure.

Operating Systems

5Which scheduling algorithm can cause starvation?

  1. First Come First Serve
  2. Round Robin
  3. Shortest Job First
  4. All of the above
Answer: C) Shortest Job First
In SJF, a long process may never get CPU if shorter processes keep arriving. FCFS and Round Robin do not cause starvation.

6What is a deadlock?

  1. When two processes compete for CPU
  2. When processes are waiting indefinitely for resources held by each other
  3. When a process terminates abnormally
  4. When memory is full
Answer: B) When processes are waiting indefinitely for resources held by each other
Deadlock occurs when two or more processes are blocked forever, each waiting for resources held by others.

Data Structures

7What is the time complexity of searching an element in a balanced Binary Search Tree?

  1. O(1)
  2. O(n)
  3. O(log n)
  4. O(n log n)
Answer: C) O(log n)
In a balanced BST, the height is log n, and we traverse at most height nodes to find any element.

8Which data structure is used for implementing recursion?

  1. Queue
  2. Stack
  3. Array
  4. Linked List
Answer: B) Stack
Recursion uses the call stack to store return addresses, local variables, and parameters for each function call.

9What is the worst-case time complexity of QuickSort?

  1. O(n)
  2. O(n log n)
  3. O(n²)
  4. O(log n)
Answer: C) O(n²)
QuickSort has O(n²) worst-case when the pivot selection is poor (e.g., already sorted array with first/last element as pivot).

10Which of the following is NOT a valid linked list type?

  1. Singly Linked List
  2. Doubly Linked List
  3. Circular Linked List
  4. Binary Linked List
Answer: D) Binary Linked List
There is no standard data structure called "Binary Linked List." Binary trees exist, but they are not classified as linked lists.

Coding Problems (2 Problems with Solutions)

Problem 1: Find the Largest Element in Array

Write a program to find the largest element in an array of integers.

Input: arr = [12, 35, 1, 10, 34, 1]

Output: 35

Python Solution

def find_largest(arr):
    # Handle empty array
    if not arr:
        return None

    # Initialize max with first element
    max_element = arr[0]

    # Traverse and compare
    for num in arr:
        if num > max_element:
            max_element = num

    return max_element

# Test
arr = [12, 35, 1, 10, 34, 1]
print(find_largest(arr))  # Output: 35

Java Solution

public class LargestElement {
    public static int findLargest(int[] arr) {
        // Handle empty array
        if (arr == null || arr.length == 0) {
            throw new IllegalArgumentException("Array is empty");
        }

        // Initialize max with first element
        int max = arr[0];

        // Traverse and compare
        for (int i = 1; i < arr.length; i++) {
            if (arr[i] > max) {
                max = arr[i];
            }
        }

        return max;
    }

    public static void main(String[] args) {
        int[] arr = {12, 35, 1, 10, 34, 1};
        System.out.println(findLargest(arr));  // Output: 35
    }
}

Problem 2: Check Palindrome

Write a program to check if a given string is a palindrome.

Input: str = "madam"

Output: true

Input: str = "hello"

Output: false

Python Solution

def is_palindrome(s):
    # Remove spaces and convert to lowercase
    s = s.lower().replace(" ", "")

    # Compare string with its reverse
    return s == s[::-1]

# Alternative: Two-pointer approach
def is_palindrome_twopointer(s):
    s = s.lower().replace(" ", "")
    left, right = 0, len(s) - 1

    while left < right:
        if s[left] != s[right]:
            return False
        left += 1
        right -= 1

    return True

# Test
print(is_palindrome("madam"))   # True
print(is_palindrome("hello"))   # False
print(is_palindrome("A man a plan a canal Panama"))  # True

Java Solution

public class Palindrome {
    public static boolean isPalindrome(String s) {
        // Remove spaces and convert to lowercase
        s = s.toLowerCase().replaceAll(" ", "");

        int left = 0;
        int right = s.length() - 1;

        while (left < right) {
            if (s.charAt(left) != s.charAt(right)) {
                return false;
            }
            left++;
            right--;
        }

        return true;
    }

    public static void main(String[] args) {
        System.out.println(isPalindrome("madam"));   // true
        System.out.println(isPalindrome("hello"));   // false
        System.out.println(isPalindrome("A man a plan a canal Panama"));  // true
    }
}

TCS Interview Rounds Explained

TCS NQT Online Test

Duration: 120 minutes (+ 90 min for coding if TCS Digital)

Mode: Online proctored

Sections:

  • Numerical Ability (26 questions)
  • Verbal Ability (24 questions)
  • Reasoning Ability (30 questions)
  • Coding (2 problems - optional for Ninja, mandatory for Digital)

Tips: Time management is critical. Attempt all questions — no negative marking. For coding, focus on getting partial marks if you can't solve completely.

Technical Interview

Duration: 30-45 minutes

Mode: Virtual (Microsoft Teams) or In-person

Topics covered:

  • Resume-based questions (projects, internships)
  • Programming fundamentals (C/Java/Python)
  • OOP concepts (inheritance, polymorphism, abstraction)
  • DBMS (SQL queries, joins, normalization)
  • Data Structures basics (arrays, linked lists, trees)
  • OS concepts (if time permits)

Tips: Know your projects inside out. Be ready to write code on paper/whiteboard. Explain your thought process clearly.

Managerial Interview

Duration: 20-30 minutes

Mode: Virtual or In-person

Focus areas:

  • Problem-solving scenarios
  • Team collaboration examples
  • Conflict resolution
  • Handling pressure situations
  • Career goals and aspirations

Tips: Use STAR method (Situation, Task, Action, Result) for behavioral questions. Show leadership potential and adaptability.

HR Interview

Duration: 15-20 minutes

Mode: Virtual or In-person

Common questions:

  • Tell me about yourself
  • Why TCS?
  • Strengths and weaknesses
  • Where do you see yourself in 5 years?
  • Are you willing to relocate?
  • Do you have any questions for us?

Tips: Be confident but humble. Research TCS values and recent news. Always say YES to relocation. Prepare 2-3 thoughtful questions about the role/company.

30-Day TCS NQT Preparation Calendar

Week-by-Week Study Plan

Week 1: Numerical Ability Foundation (Days 1-7)

  • Day 1-2: Percentages, Profit & Loss, Simple/Compound Interest
  • Day 3-4: Ratios & Proportions, Partnerships, Mixtures & Alligation
  • Day 5-6: Time-Speed-Distance, Trains, Boats & Streams
  • Day 7: Time & Work, Pipes & Cisterns, Practice Test (30 questions)

Daily target: 30 problems, focus on speed (1.5 min per question)

Week 2: Verbal + Reasoning (Days 8-14)

  • Day 8-9: Reading Comprehension (2 passages daily), Vocabulary building
  • Day 10-11: Fill in Blanks, Sentence Correction, Para Jumbles
  • Day 12-13: Blood Relations, Seating Arrangements (Linear + Circular)
  • Day 14: Syllogisms, Coding-Decoding, Direction Sense, Practice Test

Daily target: 15 Verbal + 15 Reasoning problems

Week 3: Coding + Technical (Days 15-21)

  • Day 15-16: Pattern printing (triangles, pyramids, number patterns)
  • Day 17-18: Array problems (find max/min, search, sort basics)
  • Day 19: String operations (palindrome, reverse, substring)
  • Day 20: Revise CS fundamentals: OOP, DBMS (SQL), OS basics
  • Day 21: Data Structures review, Technical MCQ practice

Daily target: 3 coding problems on HackerRank/LeetCode (Easy level)

Week 4: Mock Tests + Interview Prep (Days 22-30)

  • Day 22-24: Full-length mock tests (one per day), analyze mistakes
  • Day 25-26: Revise weak areas identified from mocks
  • Day 27-28: Technical interview preparation (CS fundamentals, project walk-through)
  • Day 29: HR interview preparation (common questions, STAR method)
  • Day 30: Light revision, relax, review important formulas

Mock test target: Score 70%+ consistently, complete within time

Success Mantra: Consistency beats intensity. 3-4 hours of focused daily practice for 30 days will get you through TCS NQT. Don't skip any day!

Frequently Asked Questions (20 FAQs)

What is TCS NQT minimum CGPA requirement?
TCS requires minimum 60% or 6.5 CGPA throughout academics (10th, 12th, graduation). No active backlogs allowed at the time of joining. Maximum 28 years age limit. All engineering branches (CSE, IT, ECE, EEE, Mech, Civil, etc.) are eligible.
What is TCS fresher salary 2026?
TCS 2026 fresher salary: TCS Ninja offers ₹3.36 LPA, TCS Digital offers ₹7 LPA, and TCS Prime offers ₹9 LPA. Digital and Prime require additional coding rounds and higher NQT scores.
What is TCS NQT exam pattern 2026?
TCS NQT 2026 pattern: Numerical Ability (26 questions/40 min) + Verbal Ability (24 questions/30 min) + Reasoning Ability (30 questions/50 min). Total 80 questions in 120 minutes. Optional coding round (2 problems/90 min) for TCS Digital.
Is there negative marking in TCS NQT?
No, there is no negative marking in TCS NQT. Attempt all questions as unanswered questions score zero. This is a major advantage — guess if you don't know the answer.
What programming language is used in TCS coding test?
TCS allows C, C++, Java, Python, and Perl for coding. Python is recommended for faster implementation. TCS uses its own compiler called TCS CodeVita IDE.
How to prepare for TCS NQT in 30 days?
Week 1: Numerical Ability (percentages, ratios, time-speed-distance). Week 2: Verbal + Reasoning. Week 3: Coding + Technical. Week 4: Mock tests + Interview prep. Practice 3-4 hours daily.
What is difference between TCS Ninja and TCS Digital?
TCS Ninja (₹3.36 LPA) requires only NQT aptitude test. TCS Digital (₹7 LPA) requires higher NQT score + coding round. Digital roles involve more technical work, better projects, and faster career growth.
How many rounds are there in TCS placement?
TCS has 4 rounds: (1) TCS NQT Online Test (Aptitude + optional Coding), (2) Technical Interview, (3) Managerial Interview, (4) HR Interview. Some candidates may skip managerial round depending on performance.
What topics are asked in TCS technical interview?
TCS technical interview covers: Programming basics (C/Java), OOP concepts (inheritance, polymorphism, encapsulation), DBMS (SQL queries, joins, normalization), OS basics, Data structures, Project discussion in depth.
Is TCS a good company for freshers?
Yes, TCS is India's largest IT company with excellent training (ILP program), job stability, global opportunities, and structured career path. Good work-life balance compared to startups. Cons: Initial salary is moderate, service-based work.
What is TCS ILP training duration?
TCS Initial Learning Program (ILP) is 45-60 days of training in Trivandrum, Ahmedabad, or other centers. You learn technical skills, soft skills, and TCS processes. Salary is paid during training.
Can ECE/EEE students apply for TCS?
Yes, TCS accepts all engineering branches. ECE, EEE, Mechanical, Civil students are eligible for software roles. Same eligibility criteria (60%/6.5 CGPA) applies. Prepare programming basics for technical round.
How difficult is TCS NQT?
TCS NQT difficulty is moderate. Numerical/Verbal is similar to CAT basic level. Reasoning is moderate. With 3-4 weeks preparation, clearing the cutoff is achievable. Coding section (for Digital) is medium difficulty.
What is TCS bond period?
TCS has a 2-year service agreement. If you leave within 2 years, you may need to pay penalty (₹50,000-1 lakh). However, TCS rarely enforces this strictly. Read your offer letter terms carefully.
When does TCS conduct campus placements?
TCS conducts NQT multiple times: July-August (early hiring), October-November (regular season), January-March (extended season). Off-campus TCS NQT is open throughout the year on TCS NextStep portal.
What is TCS NQT cutoff score?
TCS NQT cutoff varies by year and role. Typically: Ninja requires 60-65% overall, Digital requires 75%+ overall with good coding score. Sectional cutoffs also apply (approx 40-50% per section).
Can I apply for TCS NQT multiple times?
Yes, you can attempt TCS NQT multiple times, but there's usually a 6-month gap required between attempts. Your best score is considered. Register on TCS NextStep portal.
What is TCS Prime hiring?
TCS Prime is the highest fresher package at ₹9 LPA. It requires exceptional NQT score, strong coding skills, and additional technical rounds. Available for top performers from premier institutes.
How to crack TCS coding round?
Practice arrays, strings, pattern printing, basic math problems. TCS coding is easier than product companies. Focus on: reading input correctly, handling edge cases, partial marking. Python recommended for speed.
What is TCS NextStep portal?
TCS NextStep is the official career portal for TCS. Register at nextstep.tcs.com, upload documents, apply for TCS NQT, track application status. Keep profile updated with latest academic details.

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