Placement Aptitude Mock Test 1 - 2026

Test Instructions

Parameter	Details
Total Questions	100
Total Time	120 minutes
Sections	4 (Quantitative, Logical, Verbal, Technical)
Marking	+1 for correct, -0.25 for wrong (negative marking)
Passing Score	60+ marks

Section Breakdown

Section	Questions	Time Suggested
Quantitative Aptitude	30	35 minutes
Logical Reasoning	30	35 minutes
Verbal Ability	20	25 minutes
Technical	20	25 minutes

Section 1: Quantitative Aptitude (30 Questions)

Q1. A shopkeeper sells an article at 20% profit. If he had bought it at 10% less and sold it for ₹18 less, he would have gained 25%. Find the cost price.

A) ₹400 B) ₹450 C) ₹500 D) ₹550

Q2. The average of 11 numbers is 50. The average of the first 6 numbers is 45, and the average of the last 6 numbers is 55. Find the 6th number.

A) 45 B) 50 C) 55 D) 60

Q3. A train 200m long crosses a platform in 30 seconds at 54 km/hr. What is the platform length?

A) 150m B) 200m C) 250m D) 300m

Q4. If 12 men can complete a work in 18 days, in how many days can 8 men complete the same work?

A) 24 days B) 27 days C) 30 days D) 32 days

Q5. A mixture contains milk and water in the ratio 5:2. If 14 liters of water is added, the ratio becomes 5:4. Find the original quantity of milk.

A) 25 liters B) 30 liters C) 35 liters D) 40 liters

Q6. The compound interest on ₹8000 at 15% per annum for 2 years is:

A) ₹2580 B) ₹2600 C) ₹2680 D) ₹2700

Q7. A can do a work in 15 days, B in 20 days. They work together for 5 days, then C completes the remaining work in 5 days. How many days would C take alone?

A) 15 days B) 20 days C) 25 days D) 30 days

Q8. The HCF of two numbers is 12 and their LCM is 360. If one number is 72, find the other.

A) 48 B) 60 C) 72 D) 84

Q9. A boat travels 36 km downstream in 4 hours and 24 km upstream in 3 hours. Find the speed of the stream.

A) 1 km/hr B) 1.5 km/hr C) 2 km/hr D) 2.5 km/hr

Q10. The sum of ages of 5 children born at intervals of 3 years each is 50 years. What is the age of the youngest child?

A) 4 years B) 6 years C) 8 years D) 10 years

Q11. If log₂(x) + log₂(y) = 6 and x + y = 16, find xy.

A) 32 B) 48 C) 64 D) 80

Q12. A sum of money doubles in 8 years at simple interest. In how many years will it triple?

A) 12 years B) 14 years C) 16 years D) 20 years

Q13. The ratio of present ages of A and B is 4:5. After 5 years, the ratio becomes 5:6. Find B's present age.

A) 20 years B) 25 years C) 30 years D) 35 years

Q14. A shopkeeper marks his goods 40% above cost price and allows a discount of 25%. His profit percentage is:

A) 5% B) 8% C) 10% D) 12%

Q15. The area of a rectangle is 460 sq.m. If the length is 15% more than the breadth, find the breadth.

A) 18m B) 20m C) 22m D) 25m

Q16. In how many ways can the letters of the word 'LEADER' be arranged?

A) 120 B) 240 C) 360 D) 720

Q17. Two dice are thrown. What is the probability of getting a sum of 9?

A) 1/9 B) 1/6 C) 1/12 D) 4/36

Q18. The difference between 72% and 54% of a number is 432. What is 65% of that number?

A) 1400 B) 1500 C) 1560 D) 1600

Q19. A cistern is filled in 8 hours but takes 12 hours to fill due to a leak. If the cistern is full, in how many hours will the leak empty it?

A) 16 hours B) 20 hours C) 24 hours D) 28 hours

Q20. The average weight of 8 persons increases by 2.5 kg when a new person comes in place of one of them weighing 65 kg. What is the weight of the new person?

A) 80 kg B) 85 kg C) 90 kg D) 95 kg

Q21. If x + 1/x = 5, find x² + 1/x².

A) 21 B) 23 C) 25 D) 27

Q22. A and B can do a piece of work in 12 days, B and C in 15 days, C and A in 20 days. How long will A alone take?

A) 20 days B) 25 days C) 30 days D) 35 days

Q23. The surface area of a sphere is 5544 cm². Find its volume.

A) 38808 cm³ B) 40000 cm³ C) 42350 cm³ D) 45000 cm³

Q24. In a 200m race, A beats B by 20m and C by 40m. In a 100m race, B will beat C by:

A) 10m B) 11.11m C) 12m D) 15m

Q25. A trader mixes 26 kg of rice at ₹20/kg with 30 kg at ₹36/kg and sells at ₹40/kg. What is his profit percentage?

A) 25% B) 30% C) 35% D) 40%

Q26. If a : b = 2 : 3, b : c = 4 : 5, find a : b : c.

A) 8:12:15 B) 6:9:15 C) 4:6:9 D) 2:4:5

Q27. What is the remainder when 2⁵⁰ is divided by 7?

A) 1 B) 2 C) 4 D) 6

Q28. A man rows at 5 km/hr in still water. If the river flows at 1 km/hr, it takes him 75 minutes to row to a place and back. How far is the place?

A) 2 km B) 3 km C) 4 km D) 5 km

Q29. The sum of squares of three consecutive odd numbers is 155. Find the middle number.

A) 5 B) 7 C) 9 D) 11

Q30. In what ratio must tea at ₹62/kg be mixed with tea at ₹72/kg to get a mixture worth ₹65/kg?

A) 3:1 B) 7:3 C) 4:1 D) 7:4

Section 2: Logical Reasoning (30 Questions)

Q31. Find the missing number: 2, 6, 12, 20, 30, ?

A) 38 B) 40 C) 42 D) 44

Q32. Find the odd one out: 8, 27, 64, 100, 125, 216

A) 27 B) 64 C) 100 D) 125

Q33. In a certain code, COMPUTER is written as RFUVQNPC. How is MEDICINE written?

A) EOJDJEFM B) EOJDEJFM C) MFEDJJOE D) MFEJDJOE

Q34. Statement: All roses are flowers. Some flowers are red.

Conclusions: I. All roses are red. II. Some red things are flowers.

A) Only I follows B) Only II follows C) Both follow D) Neither follows

Q35. Arrange in order: 1. Child 2. Adult 3. Infant 4. Old 5. Adolescent

A) 3,1,5,2,4 B) 1,3,5,2,4 C) 3,5,1,2,4 D) 5,3,1,2,4

Q36. Find the next term: AZ, BY, CX, DW, ?

A) EV B) EV C) FV D) EU

Q37. If A = 1, B = 2, ... Z = 26, find the value of WORD.

A) 60 B) 62 C) 64 D) 66

A) Sister B) Cousin C) Daughter D) Niece

Q39. Complete the series: BDF, CFI, DHL, ?

A) EJO B) EJO C) EKN D) FJM

Q40. In a row of 40 students, Ravi is 15th from the left. What is his position from the right?

A) 24 B) 25 C) 26 D) 27

Q41. If MEANDER is coded as @#$%^&*, then SERENE is coded as:

A) *^&^%$ B) ^&^% C) ^$^% D) ^&^$

Q42. Find the odd pair: (2-8), (3-27), (4-64), (5-125), (6-216)

A) 2-8 B) 3-27 C) 5-125 D) All are correct

Q43. Statement: The government has increased taxes on luxury goods.

Assumptions: I. People will stop buying luxury goods. II. Government revenue will increase.

A) Only I is implicit B) Only II is implicit
C) Both are implicit D) Neither is implicit

Q44. What comes next: 1, 4, 9, 16, 25, ?

A) 34 B) 36 C) 38 D) 40

Q45. If CLOCK is coded as 34215, and TIME is coded as 8679, what is the code for MOLE?

A) 9726 B) 9728 C) 9738 D) 9827

Q46. Find the wrong number: 105, 85, 60, 30, 0, -45, -90

A) 0 B) 30 C) 85 D) 105

Q47. In a certain code, '786' means 'study very hard', '958' means 'hard work pays', '645' means 'study and work'. What is the code for 'very'?

A) 7 B) 8 C) 6 D) Cannot be determined

Q48. Arrange the words: 1. Index 2. Contents 3. Title 4. Chapters 5. Introduction

A) 3,2,1,5,4 B) 3,2,5,1,4 C) 3,5,1,2,4 D) 3,1,2,5,4

Q49. If REASON is coded as 5 and BELIEVED as 7, what is the code for GOVERNMENT?

A) 9 B) 10 C) 11 D) 8

Q50. Find the missing letter: A, D, I, P, ?

A) W B) X C) Y D) Z

Q51. Six friends A, B, C, D, E, F sit around a circular table. A is between B and C. D is between E and F. B is opposite to D. Who is sitting opposite to C?

A) A B) D C) E D) F

Q52. Complete: 8 : 28 :: 27 : ?

A) 55 B) 65 C) 75 D) 85

Q53. If ÷ means ×, × means +, + means -, and - means ÷, then 20 - 4 × 3 + 2 = ?

A) 10 B) 15 C) 18 D) 20

Q54. Find the odd one: Tomato, Carrot, Potato, Beetroot

A) Tomato B) Carrot C) Potato D) Beetroot

Q55. Which number replaces the question mark?

  4   6   8
  6   9  12
  8  12  ?

A) 14 B) 16 C) 18 D) 20

Q56. Statement: All bags are cakes. All lamps are cakes.

Conclusions: I. Some lamps are bags. II. No lamp is a bag.

A) Only I follows B) Only II follows
C) Either I or II follows D) Neither follows

Q57. If WATER is written as YCVGT, then what is written as HKTG?

A) IRFE B) FIRE C) FRFE D) ERIF

Q58. Find the next number: 0, 2, 6, 12, 20, 30, ?

A) 40 B) 42 C) 44 D) 46

Q59. In a code language, 'qik cha' means 'good book', 'pik da' means 'big garden', 'cha la' means 'good story'. What is the code for 'book'?

A) qik B) cha C) la D) da

A) Mother B) Grandmother C) Sister D) Daughter

Section 3: Verbal Ability (20 Questions)

Q61. Choose the word opposite in meaning to ABUNDANT:

A) Plentiful B) Scarce C) Sufficient D) Ample

Q62. Find the correctly spelled word:

A) Recieve B) Receive C) Receeve D) Receve

Q63. Choose the word nearest in meaning to BENEVOLENT:

A) Malevolent B) Kind C) Cruel D) Selfish

Q64. Fill in the blank: He insisted ___ seeing the manager.

A) on B) in C) to D) for

Q65. Rearrange: (P) he had been quite (Q) I knew (R) I met him (S) famous before

A) QRPS B) QRSP C) QSPR D) QPSR

Q66. Error spotting: She is (A) / the best (B) / of the two sisters (C) / No error (D)

A) A B) B C) C D) D

Q67. Synonym of ELOQUENT:

A) Speechless B) Fluent C) Rude D) Quiet

Q68. Fill in the blank: The train ___ before we reached the station.

A) has left B) had left C) was leaving D) left

Q69. One word substitution: A person who knows many languages.

A) Polyglot B) Linguist C) Bilingual D) Multilingual

Q70. Antonym of MITIGATE:

A) Alleviate B) Aggravate C) Lessen D) Reduce

Q71. Fill in the blank: Neither the students nor the teacher ___ present.

A) were B) was C) are D) have

Q72. Idiom meaning: To burn the midnight oil

A) To work late into the night B) To waste time
C) To light a lamp D) To study chemistry

Q73. Synonym of PERNICIOUS:

A) Beneficial B) Harmful C) Innocent D) Helpful

Q74. Error spotting: The sceneries (A) / of Kashmir (B) / is beautiful (C) / No error (D)

A) A B) B C) C D) D

Q75. Fill in the blank: He is ___ honourable man.

A) a B) an C) the D) no article

Q76. Choose the word opposite to TRANSIENT:

A) Temporary B) Permanent C) Fleeting D) Brief

Q77. Rearrange: (P) is a wonder (Q) The Taj Mahal (R) of the world (S) one of the seven wonders

A) QRPS B) QSPR C) QRSP D) QPSR

Q78. Fill in the blank: I prefer coffee ___ tea.

A) than B) over C) to D) against

Q79. Synonym of PRUDENT:

A) Careless B) Wise C) Foolish D) Reckless

Q80. One word substitution: One who hates mankind.

A) Misanthrope B) Philanthropist C) Optimist D) Pessimist

Section 4: Technical (20 Questions)

Q81. What is the output of:

int x = 5;
printf("%d", ++x + x++);

A) 11 B) 12 C) 13 D) Undefined behavior

Q82. In SQL, which command is used to remove all records from a table but keep the table structure?

A) DELETE B) DROP C) TRUNCATE D) REMOVE

Q83. What is the time complexity of binary search?

A) O(n) B) O(log n) C) O(n log n) D) O(n²)

Q84. In OS, which algorithm suffers from Belady's anomaly?

A) LRU B) FIFO C) Optimal D) MRU

Q85. Which data structure uses LIFO principle?

A) Queue B) Stack C) Linked List D) Tree

Q86. What is the output of:

printf("%d", sizeof("Hello"));

A) 5 B) 6 C) 4 D) 1

Q87. Which normal form removes transitive dependencies?

A) 1NF B) 2NF C) 3NF D) BCNF

Q88. In TCP/IP, which layer is responsible for routing?

A) Transport B) Network C) Data Link D) Physical

Q89. Which sorting algorithm has worst-case O(n log n) complexity?

A) Quick Sort B) Merge Sort C) Bubble Sort D) Insertion Sort

Q90. What is the default port for HTTP?

A) 21 B) 80 C) 443 D) 8080

Q91. In OOP, which feature allows a subclass to provide specific implementation of a method already defined in parent class?

A) Encapsulation B) Inheritance C) Polymorphism D) Overriding

Q92. What does the following code print?

int arr[] = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5};
printf("%d", *(arr + 2));

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) Address

Q93. Which SQL keyword is used to eliminate duplicate rows?

A) UNIQUE B) DISTINCT C) GROUP BY D) ORDER BY

Q94. In a binary tree, which traversal gives nodes in sorted order for BST?

A) Pre-order B) In-order C) Post-order D) Level-order

Q95. What is the primary key constraint in SQL?

A) Allows NULL B) Allows duplicates
C) Unique and NOT NULL D) Foreign key reference

Q96. Which protocol is connectionless?

A) TCP B) HTTP C) UDP D) FTP

Q97. Memory allocated using malloc() is stored in:

A) Stack B) Heap C) Data Segment D) Code Segment

Q98. In C, what is the size of int typically?

A) 1 byte B) 2 bytes C) 4 bytes D) 8 bytes

Q99. Which data structure is best for implementing recursion?

A) Queue B) Stack C) Array D) Linked List

Q100. What is the maximum number of nodes in a binary tree of height h?

A) h B) 2^h C) 2^(h+1) - 1 D) h²

Answer Key

Quantitative Aptitude (Q1-Q30)

Q	Ans	Q	Ans	Q	Ans	Q	Ans	Q	Ans
1	A	7	B	13	B	19	C	25	B
2	B	8	B	14	A	20	B	26	A
3	C	9	B	15	B	21	B	27	C
4	B	10	A	16	C	22	C	28	B
5	C	11	C	17	A	23	A	29	B
6	A	12	C	18	C	24	B	30	B

Logical Reasoning (Q31-Q60)

Q	Ans	Q	Ans	Q	Ans	Q	Ans	Q	Ans
31	C	37	A	43	B	49	A	55	B
32	C	38	A	44	B	50	A	56	C
33	A	39	A	45	B	51	D	57	B
34	B	40	C	46	A	52	D	58	B
35	A	41	B	47	A	53	A	59	A
36	B	42	D	48	B	54	A	60	A

Verbal Ability (Q61-Q80)

Q	Ans	Q	Ans	Q	Ans	Q	Ans
61	B	66	C	71	B	76	B
62	B	67	B	72	A	77	C
63	B	68	B	73	B	78	C
64	A	69	A	74	A	79	B
65	B	70	B	75	B	80	A

Technical (Q81-Q100)

Q	Ans	Q	Ans	Q	Ans	Q	Ans
81	D	86	B	91	D	96	C
82	C	87	C	92	C	97	B
83	B	88	B	93	B	98	C
84	B	89	B	94	B	99	B
85	B	90	B	95	C	100	C

Score Interpretation

Score	Performance	Recommendation
85-100	Excellent	Ready for top companies
70-84	Good	Practice weak areas
55-69	Average	Need significant improvement
Below 55	Needs Work	Focus on fundamentals

Last Updated: March 2026